Answer:
No, I do not think so.
Explanation:
I believe that since the courts are supposed to be non-biased they are non-biased. If they were biased we would have an infinite stronghold of certain political parties in the state. But since opinions have changed there isn't any substantial evidence there is such bias.
(This is an opinionated question, there is no real answer and there isnt a reason for us to do it for you)
